To say that there is " high mortality amongst at-risk groups" would suggest what? I would think that a high rate of anything would be, just for arguments sake, 10%.  Even in high risk, older populations (over age 55), lets use this article as a baseline.
"Those 55 and older actually made up more than 90 percent of all COVID-19 deaths in the U.S." thehill.com/.../512768-americans-misperceive-the-risks-of-death-from
That means that out of roughly 800,000 Americans 720,000 of those are 55 and up. So as a  data point lets say 55 and up are 40% of the population in the US. Thats 132,400,000 people. I think that is a low # for 55 and up, but could be relevant to the scope of my argument that generalizing that this is deadly on a high level is misleading.  As you can see quickly 720K of 132Mill is not a high level. Would not even be considered a statistical anomaly. That death rate is 0.005438% of people over the fictitious age of 55, I used to make this point.
Like I stated before, I would consider 10% high.  This doesn't even begin to enter a real #.  We need to jump off this train of misleading the general public about how "deadly" this is, especially to people under the age of 55.  

Am I all wet in my line of thinking???