Hello, I have a question about this study and the conclusion that you came to regarding it: you say that “Taken together, the findings of the current study showed that the T-cell response to the Omicron variant is maintained, regardless of COVID-19 history or vaccination, and may confer protection from severe illness”. Don’t the data show something different? It looks like the majority of patients from each group had a CD4+ response to the mutated Omicron peptides, although not nearly all of them, and it did depend on the group, but in terms of CD8+ responses, it seems like there were large differences in the percent of patients with a response depending on the group, and in some groups less than half of the samples had CD8+ T cell activity against the mutated peptides from Omicron? These seem somewhat contradictory, and I am curious to know how you came to that conclusion?